Did Jesus’ Second Coming take place in 70 A.D.? As strange as the question sounds, preterists answer “yes.” At issue are Scriptures such as Matthew 24 and 25. How shall we interpret the “coming” verses in these two chapters?
1) Were any of these “coming” verses fulfilled in 70 A.D.?
2) Are any of these “coming” verses yet unfulfilled?
3) Was Jesus discussing one or two “comings”?
Most of us realize that Matthew 24 contains some very difficult issues. Personally, I am still struggling with some of them. Thus I welcome any insights that readers wish to offer me after you carefully consider the following with an open Bible.
Two major topics of Matthew 24 and 25 are the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. and Jesus’ coming. His coming is named more than a dozen times in 24 and 25. Some of these “coming” verses might plausibly refer to a spiritual coming of Jesus in 70 A.D. But others of these “coming” verses seem to me definitely to refer to a yet future Second Coming. I find no way in the context to separate the “coming” verses into two separate events. I am persuaded that the evidence for a physical yet future coming far outweighs the evidence for a spiritual coming in 70 A.D.
Take, for example, several similarities between 24:30,31 and 25:31,32. Then notice that for the tribulation in Judea in 70 A.D. Jesus said, “those days will be shortened.” (24:22). In contrast, when Jesus comes as outlined in 25:31-46, He will gather and judge “all the nations,” sending them to “everlasting punishment” or “life eternal” (25:46). Surely no spiritualizing can justifiably construe this to refer to 70 A.D. I therefore conclude that, since 24:30,31 and 25:31,32 are so similar, they both must refer to the same still future Second Coming. What do you think?